Thursday, November 06, 2014

emor m'at v'aseh harbei

Chazal say that Avraham exemplified the midah of “emor m’at v’aseh harbei” as we see from this week's parsha where he offered to serve the angels a bite of bread and then brought out a whole gourmet fleishig seudah.  Ephron, in next week’s parsha, exemplifies the opposite, as we see from his at first passing off Avraham’s offer to buy Me’aras haMachpeila as a trifling and then collecting full price for it.


Lichorah this idea of “emor m’at” is simply a hedge against getting caught in a lie.  Don’t promise too much, because in the end, you may not be able to deliver.  Circumstances arise… things happen. However, Avos D”R Nosson (ch 13) writes that even Hashem practices this midah: Avraham was told in last week’s parsha , “V’gam es hagoy asher ya’avodu dan anochi” – just 2 letters, daled-nun – and the Egyptians in the end were punished with miracles and miracles.  Hashem, according to the Avod D”R Nosson, deliberately did not mention the full measure of punishment that would be brought upon Egypt because Hashem is “omeir m’at.”  In the Shiurei Da’as, in a shiur written over by my wife’s grandfather, R’ Bloch asks: if “emor m’at v’aseh harbei” is just a hedge against not being able to fulfill your promise, then what sense does it make for Hashem to practice this midah?  Hashem is kol yachol and can do anything, and He knows in advance all the circumstances and obstacles that stand in the way of something being accomplished.  Surely he needs no hedge against not being able to carry out what he says!  

A strong question, no?  I don't think I can do justice to the answer.

5 comments:

  1. Maybe He does it to teach us.

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    1. First the Avos D"R Nosson explains how this is a midah of the tzadikim, and then it says even Hashem practices this midah. If it is the standard idea of "mah hu af atah," then it should be reversed -- first Chazal should tell us that this is Hashem's midah, and then tell us that the tzadikim put it in practice. What's pshat in the "..even?"

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  2. cause If tzadikim practice it, and tzadikim mirror hkbh, then Where did they get the midda from. Comes avos dr'n that's Where they got it from hkbh

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    1. If that's the pshat, then it should start with the telling us what Hashem does and then tell us that the tzadikim imitate. Instead, it starts by telling us what the tzadikim do, and then by the way, Hashem practices the same midah.
      More importantly, Avraham could not have learned the midah from Hashem's words at bris bein habesarim since Avraham was not aware of what would happen to the Egyptians. He did not know that Hashem would be "oseh harbei" more than was promised.

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  3. i think the answer is simple
    if hashem promised a lot, then we might not see all the nissim, and think c"v that He did less
    of course He will do as He says, but how do we perceive it if we miss something? ואמרו מצרים ...

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